5 thoughts on “is it fare to describe the dim ages, if indeed, why?

  1. is it fare?

    I suppose. I think the Dark ages were called that because of the lack of written history of that period. (well there wasn’t a ack of it as much as it wasn’t written in latin). It was written in arabic a because Europe was ruled by the moors during that period. I suppose white people would rather just skip over that oart of history.

  2. Fare? Do you mean “fair”?

    Yes and no. It was a time when there certainly was a retrenchment from the way of life and the learning of the classical eras dominated by Rome and Greece.

    Much that was known was “lost” until rediscovered in the Renaissance.

    On the other hand there is a continuity from ancient times into the middle ages, all knowledge was not lost as well.

    I still like calling it the dark ages because man did sink to a lower standard of living/political/economic status at this time and it coincides with the rise of the Roman Catholic Church in the west which did inhibit much development in the arts and sciences and at the same time gave us much learning and art as well during the “dark ages.”

  3. They tend to just call it the early Middle Ages now, and not call it the dark ages. Mainly because knowledge was not lost or forgotten. It was in the hand of the Byzantine Empire and the Arabs civilizations. This was a time of great discovery and expansion for the Byzantine and the Arabs civilizations. The last thing they wanted was a bunch of northern barbarian getting their hands on this knowledge and using it against them. Greek Fire or arabic arithmetic, anyone?

    Plus it was a great time of discovery the far east asia was well. Many new inventions were discovered and knowledge expanded in China. Printing, gear machinery, gun-powder, pre-industrial process was developed around this time in China.

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